I was reading about the allegations against Russell Brand and couldn’t help but wonder how it works legally that his revenue can be blocked based on allegations and before any juridical ruling.
Don’t get me wrong I don’t know much about the guy and what he did or didn’t do and agree that anyone should be punished according to their crimes.
But how is this possible with the principal of innocent until proven guilty? I’d be happy if someone could explain me.
IDGAF this idiot is scamming people with his antivax, pro Russian bs he can eat a bag of dicks and take a dive into the sun.
First they came for the dickbags, and I said nothing…