I’m sure the official line would be that God is also ineffable to man. “omniscience” as some human has expressed it in whatever flawed language it is probably a flawed translation from ineffable divine meaning.

Where is the evidence that god is actually “omniscient” or caims to be in the way that this proof interprets the term? It seems like hearsay to me.

But irrespective of what this god-thing may or may not have said about itself to whom, I don’t see how the statement does more than show that “‘omniscience’ is a poorly defined/illogical term”. Or maybe, “People who use the word ‘omniscience’ to describe the extent of knowledge are not expressing themselves clearly or accurately”.

This should not be all that surprising as most humans - as I understand them - rarely need to communicate clearly about infinites - so those that do should probably not use English and choose a more apposite language. Maybe hebrew or watever languages these supposed prophets might have used has better terminology.

I suspect Moses might have flunked maths.