Both utility bills and restaurant bills are demands to satisfy a debt after the service have been rendered. And in cases of rental properties, it’s refusal to pay even before the service (the legal right to reside in the property) is rendered, since most leases require paying on the first of the month. Why shouldn’t they all just be considered either all civil or all criminal. I don’t understand the inconsistency in legislation.

Country: United States of America

  • JJROKCZ
    link
    fedilink
    English
    391 year ago

    One is theft of product and the other is failure to meet contractual obligations