• @zagaberoo@beehaw.org
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    01 year ago

    Only the combination of formats results in ambiguity. Neither format is ambiguous on its own.

    Standardization is good, and if someone were to change it should probably be the US given the apparent worldwide consensus otherwise. That doesn’t make either format good or bad on its own.

    What I take issue with is people acting like the US format is some kind of bizarro nonsense when it in fact makes perfect sense in terms of matching spoken dates. That is hardly a weird basis for a format.

    Each has its tradeoffs, and which set of tradeoffs is better is a subjective matter. I agree that d/m/y makes the most sense for an international standard (if not y/m/d), but to claim that the US format itself is somehow objectively bad is silly.

    • @masterspace@lemmy.ca
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      1 year ago

      What I take issue with is people acting like the US format is some kind of bizarro nonsense

      It objectively is, and Ive explained why numerous times.

      If you don’t have an argument beyond ‘it makes sense cause we’re used to it’, then you don’t have an argument about why one is better than the other, you have a weakass dodge the conversation feelgoodism. It is the textbook definition of a subjective criteria.

      Learn how to be fucking wrong gracefully. Jesus Christ.

      • @zagaberoo@beehaw.org
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        1 year ago

        You haven’t explained what is objectively wrong other than you don’t like it. My argument is more than just being used to it, closely matching verbal convention is useful.

        Also, it’s funny that you think I’m arguing either is objectively better than the other.

        • @masterspace@lemmy.ca
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          1 year ago

          My argument is more than just being used to it, closely matching verbal convention is useful.

          No, it’s not, because even in the states you say it like three different ways and the English language is constantly changing and inherently has no rules on what order you need to say them in. The choice of which way to express the 1st of January in the English language is purely a subjective one.

          And I have explained what is objectively wrong with it, it’s out of order from a numerical time length standpoint.

          • @zagaberoo@beehaw.org
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            21 year ago

            How is a lack of magnitude order objectively wrong? A date format is ultimately a language feature, and the US format successfully transmits the needed info just fine within its natural context.

            It may seem objective from your perspective, but language is used in many more contexts than those you are familiar with.

            • @masterspace@lemmy.ca
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              1 year ago

              Because the English language has no set order to express the 1st of January.

              Time lengths are objective, the way we talk about the fifth of November is not.

      • @Jessper@beehaw.org
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        21 year ago

        You don’t know what objectively means because you’re entirely up to your neck in bias. You care way too much about this thing that does not matter to remotely have an objective view here. It doesn’t matter if you think you’re being objective, this is clearly some sort of obsession for you.

        • @masterspace@lemmy.ca
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          11 year ago

          Lmao bruh, if you don’t want to talk about time codes, don’t participate in a discussion about time codes.

          My god, learn to accept that Americans can be objectively stupid sometimes instead of getting all weirdly defensive.